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Posted Fri, 21 Apr 2023 14:05:22 GMT by
I'm doing my tax return on a remittence basis as a non-domiciled. My scenario is the following : - I transferred some of my foreign income to my foreign currency bank account (EUR) with an UK bank (Starling). - The funds have been used sorely to spend abroad (foreign vendors, in foreign currency => for goods, services, travel expenses) - The funds have never been converted to GBP and have not been used to cover any costs in the UK. Is this money transfer considered remitted to the UK in this case or are there ways around it (e.g. via Exempt Property Relief).
Posted Thu, 27 Apr 2023 12:39:23 GMT by HMRC Admin 32
Hi,

Please refer to guidance at:

Paying tax on the remittance basis (Self Assessment helpsheet HS264)

Thank you.
Posted Wed, 31 Jan 2024 00:10:08 GMT by
About the scenario of the original poster, given that Starling is a UK bank, would the Startling account in Euros be considered "brought to, or received in the UK" as "Paying tax on the remittance basis (Self Assessment helpsheet HS264)" refers to?
Posted Fri, 02 Feb 2024 08:25:04 GMT by HMRC Admin 19
Hi,

If the branch is outside the UK, it is foreign income.

Thank you.

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