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Posted Thu, 27 Jan 2022 14:33:05 GMT by QNNHMRC
I received foreign dividends worth less than £2000. I also have a chargeable gain on foreign shares. For the question when tailoring the return: "If you received any foreign income, do you need to complete the foreign section?", do I answer Yes or No? If No to the above question, do I answer Yes to the following question instead? "Did you receive any dividends, for example, UK companies, authorised unit trusts, open-ended investment companies, foreign companies (up to £ 2,000)" I do not receive UK dividends, only foreign dividends less than £2,000. Also, how do I claim back the withholding tax pad on those dividends (US shares)?
Posted Fri, 28 Jan 2022 13:38:27 GMT by HMRC Admin 19
Hi,

You would need to answer yes to this as you have more than one source of foreign income.

Any tax paid on either of these can then be claimed on the foreign section of the return.

Thank you.
Posted Fri, 28 Jan 2022 13:47:26 GMT by QNNHMRC
Thank you for answering. If I answer Yes to the foreign section, do I enter the foreign dividends in the foreign section or in the section where I say Yes to "Did you receive any dividends, for example, UK companies, authorised unit trusts, open-ended investment companies, foreign companies (up to £ 2,000)"?
Posted Fri, 28 Jan 2022 15:41:04 GMT by HMRC Admin 2
Hi,

No, you would enter no to this question and enter all foreign income on the income section of the return.

Thank you.
Posted Wed, 25 Jan 2023 14:33:00 GMT by QNNHMRC
What is the difference of the £300 threshold for foreign dividends and the £2,000 thresholds in the question "Did you receive any dividends, for example, UK companies, authorised unit trusts, open-ended investment companies, foreign companies (up to £ 2,000)"? I understand that if foreign dividends are under £300, I do not need to enter it in the Foreign section. Instead I say YES to the above question "Did you receive any dividends, for example, UK companies, authorised unit trusts, open-ended investment companies, foreign companies (up to £ 2,000)" and enter the foreign dividends there? If so, what happens is the significance of the £2,000 threshold mentioned in the question?
Posted Fri, 27 Jan 2023 14:01:36 GMT by HMRC Admin 20
Hi QNNHMRC,

The £2000 limit is in respect of the dividend allowance that allows you to have this amount before any tax is due.
If above this, the amount needs to be shown against each country the dividends are from as different rates of tax are applied by them.

Thank you.

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