Robert Beliaiev

Hi, My parents are non-UK residents and own jointly two properties in the UK, which they let (i.e. the properties are not their main residence). One property they own directly and another property they own through a company of which they are shareholders in equal shares. The company does not own anything else apart from that one property and does not engaged in any other business. Each property is worth £350k, so that together their market value is £700k. They have no other assets in the UK. Is inheritance payable on the value of the property held by the company? If they both die either together or one after the other, will their inheritance tax free allowance be £325k or £650k? On a separate note, are people who have arrived in the UK under the Homes for Ukraine scheme or Ukraine Family Scheme eligible to purchase their first property on the same stamp duty basis as first time buyers who are UK residents/nationals? They have all the other rights that UK residents/nationals have. Thanks!

Hi, my mother who is in her 50s was going to do some work for the company of which I am the sole director and majority shareholder. My mother also has a small amount of shares in the company. The company paid my mother £6000 by way of a PAYE salary for the work that she was supposed to have done, but due to personal circumstances she was not able to do much. I do not want to reclaim the payment from her and I was advised by the company accountant that given the amount involved this is ok, as I do not have to demonstrate that any work was actually done. I note that all arrangements with her were verbal and there are no formal agreements in place (i.e. no employment contract). Apart from this £6000 by way of a salary and £2000 of dividends my mother did not receive any payments from the company and indeed no other income in the last tax year. I am conscious that in practice this means that the company will be pay less Corporation Tax as a result of paying her a salary. Do you agree with the advice of the company accountant? If not, what steps should be taken to rectify? The company accountants also advised that: (a) the salary payments can be made by a lump sum at the year end (rather than monthly) (b) payslips from a previous tax year of the employee can be amended retrospectively and an additional payment made (this is in relation to a different employee) Can you please let me know if you agree with the above? I asked these questions in the PAYE section of the forum and was advised by one of your colleagues to raised them in the Corporation Tax section. Thanks!

Hi, my mother who is in her 50s was going to do some work for the company of which I am the sole director and majority shareholder. My mother also has a small amount of shares in the company. The company paid my mother £6000 by way of a PAYE salary for the work that she was supposed to have done, but due to personal circumstances she was not able to do much. I do not want to reclaim the payment from her and I was advised by the company accountant that given the amount involved this is ok, as I do not have to demonstrate that any work was actually done. I note that all arrangements with her were verbal and there are no formal agreements in place (i.e. no employment contract). Apart from this £6000 by way of a salary and £2000 of dividends my mother did not receive any payments from the company. Do you agree with the advice of the company accountant? If not, what steps should be taken to rectify? The company accountants also advised that: (a) the salary payments can be made by a lump sum at the year end (rather than monthly) (b) payslips from a previous tax year of the employee can be amended retrospectively and an additional payment made (this is in relation to a different employee) Can you please let me know if you agree with the above? Thanks!