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We ship on DDP excluding VAT basis form our UK warehouse to our customers in Europe, we obviously clear and pay for the transport and the duty charges on import in Europe but it has been flagged to us ( by our EU customs agent) that we should include these charges in the selling price, so for example if the selling price is £100 we should add to this price the EU duty and the freight so eventually the selling price would be £150 ( where £30 is for freight and £20 is duty for example) but what if we do not want to pass this cost to our customer , are we obligated to incorporate duty and transport charges in the selling price?
Thanks for the reply, and where do we get the identical value for our products from?
Notice 252 says that we could use method 2 and produce a customs entry for identical goods imported by a wholesaler which entry has been accepted by customs under Method 1.
Doers this mean that we have to get another importer's entry , where method 1 has been used and accepted by customs and use the same value for our imports under method 2?
We have a sister company in the Netherlands , we move goods from our customs warehouse in the UK to the Netherlands. The invoice for the movement is an intercompany invoice with the UK company as the seller and NL company as the buyer, however there isn't an actual payment as it is an internal transfer. Can we still use valuation method 1 for the EU import clearance, the value used for the clearance is not affected by the relation between 'buyer' and ' seller' as there isn't an actual transaction/payment.