techie1234

I purchased public shares in Indian public companies in 2017. I moved to UK for the first time in year 2020 and now I am Tax resident and non-domiciled. I disposed them in year 2022. If I want to pay taxes using the arising basis of taxation, will my cost basis be 0 for these purchases or the actual purchase cost after converting to GBP while calculating the Capital gains tax? Also, if there was a capital loss on such transactions which was greater than the net capital gains for the year, can I file it as a capital loss under UK tax returns to be carried forward to future years? Please note - I want to file self assessment on the arising basis and not remittance basis.

Just to confirm again - if I use arising basis of taxation and declare my worldwide income, do I still need to file SA109 to just mention that I am non-domiciled or can I skip that because I am paying arising basis of taxation so my domicile wouldn't have any impact on my tax liability?

Do I need to fill SA 109 if I am a UK resident and I am domiciled outside the UK and but I am not claiming due split year treatment, overseas workday relief (OWR), or remittance basis for the 2021 to 2022 tax year? Note - I became a UK resident for tax purposes in the year 2020-21, with no split-year treatment, and I am not claiming the remittance basis on my foreign income. I'll file using the arising basis of taxation. Do I still need to complete SA 109 only to check the domicile box and then mention that I am using the arising basis of taxation in additional information?