Ray Hale

Thanks for reply, an accountant is advising that on his CPD course he was advised a very obscure law and not well known, that if the property is purchased in one spouses name only after marriage then the income is "automatically" split 50/50 - im aware of declarations of trust under TSEM6001 and TSEM9410 TSEM9520 yet these state that must /ideally be in writing - question would be then is it "automatically split 50/50"

I was under the impression that HMRC view is that if the property is brought when married in one spouse name then the rental income is split 50/50