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Posted Wed, 18 Dec 2024 14:19:58 GMT by Augustminx
How is CGT calculated on a property that has been sold. Property was purchased jointly in 2002 for £175k. Wife died in 2004 and property valued £340k in 2005 for probate. Wife's share of property transferred to husband. How is "purchase" value of property calculated please?
Posted Tue, 24 Dec 2024 12:27:35 GMT by HMRC Admin 17 Response

Hi ,
 
As there is no income / capital gains tax liability from the transfer of assets between a husband and with, the 50% share is transferred at the acquisition cost. 

This means the husband acquired the 50% share at the value paid in 2002. 

He now has 100% of the property acquired at the value in 2002.

Thank you .

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