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Posted Fri, 30 Aug 2024 13:46:16 GMT by Lesley Davison
Following the sale of a property ( previously let out ) to a daughter and her spouse, I have calculated the CGT calculation based on the current Market value, as opposed to the slightly discounted value it was sold for. Using the Market value a capital loss has arisen. I have read in a previous thread that clogged losses don't apply if market value has been used, is that correct?

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