No receipts for original purchase

I'm considering selling a house I've owned for c.30 years and have at least a partial liability for CGT. I do not have all of the original receipts relating to the purchase for example the survey as such don't have an exact figure for costs. Is it acceptable to use an indicative value based on today's equivalent fees but adjusted for inflation?

Hi,
 

Under the circumstances you describe, when you  prepare your Capital Gains calculation you can indeed use indicative values, adjusted for inflation. Thank you.