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Transfer company shares

L T
Posted Mon, 20 Nov 2023 13:42:51 GMT by L T
Dear HMRC official, Good afternoon, can I please ask if there is any CGT implications in the following senario, One has two individually owned company A and B. He is the 100% shareholders of both companies which has been trading for years and are both in profits. If he transfers his 100% share of company A directly to company B and there is no issuing of new shares in B. Will he be subject to CGT based on market value rule? Thank you for your time and clarification, Kind regards LT
HMRC Admin 10 Response
Posted Tue, 21 Nov 2023 16:03:30 GMT by HMRC Admin 10 Response
Hi
Yes as this would still be seen as a sale.
L T
Posted Tue, 21 Nov 2023 16:13:42 GMT by L T
Thank you very much for your kind clarification. Best regards LT

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