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Posted Thu, 29 Aug 2024 20:18:04 GMT by Robin
Consider the following (hypothetical) scenario: In a given fiscal year, I do not have any income liable to tax. However, I do have capital gains of £10,000 from selling shares in a non-reporting offshore investment fund. How much tax would I need to pay on that? As far as I understand, since the fund is non-reporting, any capital gains from it are taxed as income. However, since my total income would then still be below the personal allowance of £12,570, the tax rate would be 0%. Is this understanding correct? Follow up question: How would this change if the fund were reporting? Is it correct that I would then need to pay 10% tax on the £7,000 above the capital gains allowance of £3,000?
Posted Wed, 11 Sep 2024 07:27:50 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi Robin,
Unfortunately, we cannot comment on scenarios, real or imagined in this forum.
If you have a question which relates to your personal tax situation or tax code please contact our helpline:
Income Tax: general enquiries
Thank you. 

 
 

 
Posted Wed, 11 Sep 2024 09:46:51 GMT by Robin
I am confused: almost every question in this forum is about a real or hypothetical scenario related to tax, and they do generally receive answers. In which way does my question differ from those?
Posted Wed, 18 Sep 2024 18:41:07 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi Robin,
We can only give general advice.
If  you want an answer to a scenario, you will need to seek out a professional adviser.
Thank you. 

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