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Posted Mon, 12 Feb 2024 09:16:12 GMT by
Hi All, I have a query I was hoping you could assist with. If a property was bought in (person A's name) for (person B) using proceeds funded by (person C and D) and a contract was signed at the time of purchase stating that the proceeds i.e. initial deposit and any profit were to be paid back to (person C and D) who funded the property purchase, is it (Person A) who is liable for the CGT upon sale or (person C and D)? (Person A) has proof that he/she made no gain of any kind in the form of bank statements and the transfer of the funds upon sale along the lines stipulated in the contract that was signed). Any help would be appreciated.
Posted Thu, 15 Feb 2024 09:53:57 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi Adz786,
We cannot comment on scenarios, only provide general information / guidance in this forum.
For an answer to a detailed question of this nature, you would need to seek professional advice.
Thank you. 



 

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