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Posted Wed, 21 Aug 2024 19:19:35 GMT by LOUDAVE
Hello a complicated 1 here so please bear with me . Last year both parents died and left the house equally between me and 2 daughters. It was valued at probate at about £250,000.. which we thought was too high as it needs a lot of work on it . The 3 of us sat down and worked out how much we wanted as a minimum sale price which was £220,000 1 daughter for personal reasons has signed her 1/3 of the house over to me . So I in theory i own 2/3 and other daughter 1/3. We put the house on the market Nov.23 at a lower price and after 4 months we hadn't had a decent offer so my husband and I offered to buy my daughter out of her 1/3 and psy off sll the debts too .she said she wanted £55,000 without any deductions which seems fair . So her 1/3 is worth 55,000 and my 2/3 rds £110,000. We've borrowed £110,000 to pay her and pay off the estates debts . So the value of her 1/3 my 2/3 and the debts comes to around £205,000. What we are unsure of ,as she is selling to me is cgt liable . Or will the house be revalued and we pay the difference from the over valued proce last time Or is there some other way it will be liable Many thanks Note the daughter who gifted me her 1/3 did so by deed of variation
Posted Tue, 03 Sep 2024 12:35:19 GMT by HMRC Admin 18 Response
Hi,

You need to pay Capital Gains Tax when you sell (or 'dispose of) an asset if your total taxable gains are above your annual Capital Gains Tax allowance. So as you are acting as the purchaser

you will not be liable for CGT at this time. However your daughter might be. You can find out more information here:

Capital Gains Tax

You may also wish to speak to Inheritance Tax regarding any inheritance tax implications:

Inheritance Tax: general enquiries

Thank you.

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