Hi,
We have not got all the relevant facts, and it is for you to self assess correctly. What we can say is that how this is treated will depend on whether you actually had beneficial ownership of the property and was ordered by the court to hand it back or if in fact you never had beneficial ownership at all and the contract was simply voided.
If you did not ever have beneficial ownership of the asset, which may be the case here, then any incidental costs of acquisition incurred would not be allowable. The guidance below states 'The expenditure must have been incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of acquisition or disposal of the asset'.
And if there was not any asset actually acquired then it would in effect be abortive expenditure that is not allowable expenditure for capital gains purposes.
CG15260 - Incidental costs of acquisition and disposal: specific examples
If on the other hand you did have beneficial ownership and so it was classed as an acquisition and then a disposal, for the same amount, then any incidental costs of acquisition or disposal, as per the details above and below may be allowable:
CG15250 - Expenditure: incidental costs of acquisition and disposal
However these allowable costs would not include any costs incurred to preserve or defend title to the asset, where that case was lost.
It will be for you to determine, based on the facts of the case, if you actually had beneficial ownership or not. The guidance below has some information on this but you may wish to seek professional help if you need further help with this.
CG70230 - Land: legal and beneficial interests in land
Thank you.