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Posted Sun, 18 Feb 2024 16:09:26 GMT by Joseph K
If we have capital gains in a given tax year from both the sale of property (taxed at 18%/28%) and the sale of shares (taxed at 10%/20%) against which type of capital gain should we apply the tax-free CG allowance for the year? Can we use the tax-free allowance against the CG type that has higher tax? By way of an example: - Total property CG = £10,000. - Total shares CG = £10,000. If the tax-free allowance is used for the gain from property: - Taxable property CG = £10,000 - £6,000 = £4,000. - Tax on property CG (28% of £4000) = £1120. - Tax on shares CG (20% of £10,000) = £2000. - Total CG tax = £1120 + £2000 = £3120. On the other hand, if the tax-free allowance is used for the gain from shares: - Taxable shares CG = £10,000 - £6,000 = £4,000 - Tax on shares CG (20% of £4000) = £800. - Tax on property CG (28% of £10,000) = £2800. - Total CG tax = £2800 + £800 = £3600. There is a £480 difference in the total CG that is due. Thanks.
Posted Tue, 20 Feb 2024 16:29:20 GMT by HMRC Admin 10 Response
Hi
The allowance is allocated against the source that is the most beneficial to you. In this case it would be the property gain.

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