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Posted Wed, 10 Jan 2024 16:20:00 GMT by
If i had a 104 shareholding of 3000 shares at a pool cost of £3000 and transferred 1000 shares to my wife, what affects does this have on my 104 holding? Does my 104 holding reduce to 2000 shares and the pool cost reduce to £2000 and my wife now has a 104 holding of 100 shares with a pool cost of £1000. If we both later sell all of our shares, will my cost of acquisition cost be £2000 and my wife's cost of acquisition be £1000 also in relation to the transfer to my wife, in my computations workings, do i state it as a transfer of shares to my wife for of 1000 shares for £0.00 and not as a disposal? thank you so much in advance
Posted Tue, 16 Jan 2024 12:39:59 GMT by HMRC Admin 10 Response
Hi
There are no capital gains tax implications from the transfer of assets between spouses and civil partners.  The shares you transfer to your wife are transferred at your acquisition costs, so if the share are disposed of, the gain is based on the disposal value minus the acquisition and disposal costs.
Posted Tue, 16 Jan 2024 17:46:05 GMT by
Thank you. In my computations how to I express this transfer of shares from my 104 holding. Like this? Example Date: 1st April 2020. Transfer of 100 shares from my 104 holding to my wife (her name). These shares had an an acquisition cost of £x.xx. Do I have to put a price on transfer proceeds in my computations As I received no money for them?
Posted Fri, 19 Jan 2024 06:55:53 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi JamesMay75,
As there are no tax implications from the transfer of assets between spouses and civil partners.
You would note the transfer at the acquistion costs, as when your wife decides to sell them.
She would use the acquistion costs in her capital gains calculation.
Thank you. 

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