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Posted Mon, 08 Apr 2024 14:32:57 GMT by rstubbs10
Hi, Me and my wife are thinking of selling a home we own, which we brought on 31st October 2008. We lived in this house as our main residential home until we brought another house which we moved into on 1st December 2015. We have now rented this house out to a private tenant from the 1st December 2015 until now. If we do sell this house, can we claim Private Residence Relief for the time we lived in this house as our main residence and take this off the capital gains tax? (from 31/10/08 till 01/12/15) If so do we add an extra 9 months relief to the end of ownership term? We both do our own tax self assessments online each year. Would we just just split the capital gains house sale on our self assessment 50/50 as well? Thanks Richard
Posted Wed, 17 Apr 2024 14:22:34 GMT by HMRC Admin 25
Hi rstubbs10,
As this property was you main residence, you can claim Private Residence Relief for the number of months that the property was your main residence.
Please also add a further 9 months to this figure.
You should then work out the number of months that you owned the property.
This will give you the fraction number of months main residence over the number of months owned.
Please have a look at the guidance here:
HS283 Private Residence Relief (2024) As you are married, the default split on jointly owned property is 50/50.
There is a calculator here:
Tax when you sell property
To help you both work out your capital gains.
You can also create a capital gain account each and report and pay your Capital Gains Tax liability.
Please note that you have 60 days from the completion date to report and pay your Capital Gains Tax.
Thank you. 

 
Posted Tue, 10 Sep 2024 10:39:42 GMT by Peter Prentice
Dear HMRC or anyone else who can help, Please could you provide clarity on this similar situation: We bought a flat for £300k in 1997 and it was my PPR until Dec 2014 when we relocated to Scotland and bought a house. It has been rented ever since then, but the value of the property has remained static at circa £1.3Mil for the past 10 years. Question: Will our CGT liability be zero if we sell the flat now, based on the fact that the value has not changed over the 10 years since we gave it up as our PPR? Or will we need to pay CGT based on 10/27 of the total £1mil gain since initial purchase in 1997? I am very much hoping the former will be the case, as we have a valuation for circa £1.3 Mil from 2014 when we were deciding whether to sell it or keep it for rental. With Many Thanks if you can help clarify our CGT reporting options, PHP
Posted Tue, 17 Sep 2024 08:53:13 GMT by HMRC Admin 17 Response

Hi ,
 
The gain is based on the intial purchase price and not the revaluation for when you started to rent it out and
as such you will need to use the 300k figure.

You can then claim the PRR  relief for the period you lived in it .

Thank you .
Posted Sun, 22 Sep 2024 11:00:49 GMT by LMDLMC
I have an additional aspect to this thread. I bought my main residence in 2000, lived in it until May 2014 when I began renting it out until April 2024. I left the UK in Nov 2022 and returned in May 2024 where I have since returned to my main residence. I am now selling it. When do I pay CGT from? Is it from May 2014 - Nov 2022 or May 2014- May 2024. Do I add the 9 months on from May 2024 or from now? Many thanks

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