Clarification Foreign Gains & Losses

Hi, If I claimed taxes on a remittance basis in the past and never made an election for losses on disposals of non-UK assets And as an example in a given year I made €10m of foreign capital gains, and €10m of foreign capital losses, so a net profit of zero. Would it be correct to assume that I owe €2m (20% * €10m of foreign capital gains) in taxes, despite having a net global income of zero? Thank you, as it feels counter intuitive from a financial perspective

Hi
I regret that we cannot answer scenarios.  
Unremitted income /gains can be taxed in a later year if remitted to the UK in that later year.
Thankyou.