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Posted Wed, 14 Aug 2024 15:42:37 GMT by Tax Analyst
Hi, A company established overseas has provided legal services to a UK established business. Based on the local VAT rules and local legislation, the service was subject to VAT in their jurisdiction and a local VAT charge was included on the invoice. Is the UK business required to apply a reverse charge procedure and still account for UK VAT on the total invoice value? Many thanks
Posted Thu, 15 Aug 2024 11:41:48 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi Tax Analyst,
We would confirm with the supplier that the VAT has been charged correctly.
Please see the guide below:
5. Reverse charge
Thank you. 
Posted Thu, 15 Aug 2024 11:47:54 GMT by Tax Analyst
Hi HMRC Admin 25 Many thanks for your reply. The supplier's tax advisor has provided us with references to local legislation and confirmed that based on the local VAT rules the service provided is subject to VAT in their country. Could you therefore confirm if we still require to apply reverse charge on the full invoice value received? Many thanks.
Posted Thu, 15 Aug 2024 16:18:33 GMT by HMRC Admin 25 Response
Hi Tax Analyst,
Yes you would still need to account for the reverse charge on the full invoice value.
At section 5.12 of Notice 741a it states:
The value of the transaction on which VAT must be added under the reverse charge is the total amount paid together with the value of any other form of consideration.
This includes any taxes levied abroad.
Thank you. 

 
Posted Thu, 15 Aug 2024 16:56:03 GMT by Tax Analyst
Hi HMRC Admin 25 , This is great - thank you very much for your clarification. Best regards.

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