Antonio Albano

I pay into a work pension via salary sacrifice. I pay tax at 40%. I assume I don't include the amount on my tax return as I've already received the relief. That's understood, but if my pension provider then claims 20% tax relief am I not getting extra relief? Have I misunderstood this? Thanks

I pay into a personal pension. The pension provider claims the 20% basic rate and I show the total payments on my tax return in order to claim the additional 20% as I am a 40% tax payer. I also have rental income. The approximate amount I pay into my pension is also included in my tax code. As a result, I pay a lower amount of 40% tax from pay. When I complete my tax return, my 20% threshold is increased by the amount of pension payments. As such, I then pay 40% on a lower amount of income/profit. What is the purpose of including the pension payments in my tax coding? I initially get 40% relief (via my pay) and then pay 20% less tax via my SA calculation, as above. And this is before the 20% claimed by the pension provider. It seems I'm getting too much relief. Can someone please explain the calculation? Am I fundamentally misunderstanding this? Can I ask for the pension payments NOT to be included in my tax code? Thanks

Thank you. I'm a little confused. My understanding is that where a property is solely owned, the rental income can be (shared) allocated by a Deed of Assignment, in this case 90/10 - owner and wife. Where a property is jointly owned and the rental income is spilt other than 50/50, then that would need a Deed of Trust and Form 17. Am I misunderstanding this?

Is it acceptable to split the rental income of a higher-rate taxpayer with a lower-rate payer 10/90 where the property is solely owned by the higher-rate taxpayer? This would reduce the tax payable by the higher-rate tax payer due to a "lower" rental income. Similarly, can the expenses be claimed 100% by the higher-rate taxpayer to further reduce the profit taxable at the higher rate?

My client owns a rental property 100%. He is a 40% tax rate payer, He has asked about a Declaration of Trust apportioning 50% of the rental income to his wife. Obviously, he will then pay 40% on only half the profit. His wife will register for SA to account for tax on the other 50%. Is this in order as there will be no change in the title deeds, ie the property will still be 100% his?