Stoic

Versions of this question has been asked and answered before (e.g. https://community.hmrc.gov.uk/customerforums/cgt/35ea1a69-6cbc-ed11-9ac4-00155d9771aa#a99c266a-6cbc-ed11-83fe-00224801d4b9) but the answer seems so surprising to me that I am asking it again. Consider the following scenario: I make a loan to a business, on normal commercial terms, of £50k. The loan is defaulted and deemed irrecoverable. I record a capital loss of £50k, which is available to offset against future capital gains. I have no gains at the moment, so just keep a record of the loss. Some years later, small recoveries are actually made on the loan which had been thought to be irrecoverable (assets are traced, directors guarantees eventually enforced, whatever). In each of several years, I recover amounts which are each below the CGT tax free threshold. According to previous answers I don't need to use any of my loss against these gains, because they are below the CGT tax free threshold for that year. So I could end up actually recovering the full amount, as long as each year's recovery is below the CGT threshold, and end up having made no true loss, but still have a £50k loss available to offset against any future gain. Is this correct? Thank you.