M Ali

Amazon has been collecting VAT on specific transactions from us on HMRC's behalf (so they say). Could you please clarify whether the VAT collected by Amazon on behalf of HMRC needs to be reported and remitted again to HMRC on our next VAT return? Should we declare this VAT in our VAT return? Additionally, do we need to remit VAT again on all sales, or only on the remaining sales for which Amazon has not collected VAT?

Thank you for the response. Based on the provided guidance, it appears that if goods enter the UK and are subsequently exported for sale in another country, they must be accounted for in the Flat Rate Turnover and have VAT paid on them. Can you kindly verify if this interpretation is accurate?

Business registered in the UK & VAT registered using FRS scheme. They sell the goods in the USA, which are shipped from the supplier/manufacturer in China directly to Amazon warehouse in the USA. The goods at no point enter the UK. These are then sold in the USA by Amazon with state taxes being paid at point of sale. Will these be sales Zero Rated or Outside the Scope of UK VAT. Also can you clarify if HMRC expects Outside the Scope of UK VAT transactions to be reported on the VAT boxes 6/7? Thank you.

Thank you for the response above. How do we get the property valued at the date mentioned above? Get RICS surveyor, Estate Agent or request HMRC's valuation agency to provide a figure? Thank you.

Both partners are employed by and co-own the company. The husband has been provided a company car, subject to standard taxes and BIK regulations. If the wife is added as a secondary driver on the car insurance policy, will this result in any additional benefits or will the single benefit charge (on husband) suffice?

The mother and son jointly own a property, with the ownership split equally between them. The son is not a resident nor domiciled in the UK. He resided in the property before relocating abroad. It is believed that the son may be eligible to claim Principal Private Residence Relief (PRR) for the final nine months prior to selling the property. Additionally, he can utilise the default method by using the property value as of April 5, 2015, as the basis for calculating the capital gain. Can you confirm if this interpretation is accurate?

A mother and son co-own a property with a 50-50 split. The mother currently resides in the property. She has recently transferred her 50% share to her daughter-in-law. Can it be confirmed that she is exempt from paying Capital Gains Tax (CGT) on her share since the property is her primary residence?

Shall I take it up in the agents forum or shall I anticipate a similar response?

Thank you for the email. The document SACM12005 mentions a form. Where can we find the form to make the claim? Thank you.

Thank you for clarifying. Can a claim not be made under TMA 1970, Sch 1AB? I understand the time limit for that is 4 years.