JamesF

Am just adding a comment from one of the admins from another thread that answers the first part of my question around which bank account to use. It appears that the letters being sent out have the incorrect bank account on them: "If you are making the payment from a UK bank account then you pay to the bank details below: • sort code - 08 32 20 • account number - 12001004 • account name - HMRC NIC Receipts For the reference number, if you either live abroad or live in the UK but are paying for a period when you worked or lived abroad, you create your own reference number. Use your National Insurance number followed by ‘IC’, your surname then your initial. If your bank limits you to a certain number of characters, you should use your National Insurance number followed by ‘IC’ and as much of your surname as possible. Thank you.

Hi HMRC, I am at the final stage of sorting out paying for my Voluntary 2 Contributions from abroad. I have already filled in the relevant forms, received the relevant correspondence/reference number and understand the correct format to use when making payment. My only query is the correct bank details to use. As someone paying from abroad but using a UK bank account... Per this website link (https://www.gov.uk/pay-class-2-national-insurance/make-online-telephone-bank-transfer) on my letter sent by HMRC regarding my outstanding gaps from 2007-2023, I should be using: sort code - 08 32 20 account number - 12001004 account name - HMRC NIC Receipts However I have also just received a second letter for payment for the 2023-2024 tax year that clearly state overseas payments from a UK account should use: sort code - 20 20 48 account number - 30944793 account name - GBS Re NICO Receipts HMRC Which one is correct or should I be using both? 08 32 20 for historical and 20 20 48 for the most recent tax year? And one final question. I have a shortfall for periods between 2007-2023. All years prior to 2014 are for Class 3 and after 2019 are Class 2. If I only want to pay for the most recent years post 2019, should I make one payment for each year of Class 2 or a lump sum payment with the expectation that the years with the lowest amount owing (the Class 2) will be paid off first? Thanks in advance for the clarification. Cheers