Julian Bradfield

Thanks. That's what I was leaning towards.

I don't see how this is any more a personal question than any of the other questions in this Forum. It's a generic question about a particular situation that may arise for many people. In the last days, you have answered many more "personal" questions, some of which include detailed numbers!

If a transfer >50k is made under the provisions of a divorce agreement, and is therefore no loss/no gain per TCGA92/S58(1D), does it still have to be declared in SA100 capital gains section?