answerpls

Thanks for the answer. Yes - I noticed that there is not Capital Gains involved but "normal earnings" from renting a property after posted the question. Now we have it even more complicated. You wrote: "The trading income allowance of £1000 applies if you are self employed and disposing of stock to make a profit." There is information at Vinted about tax , and as an example there is mentioned 1000pounds. My wife is not self employed, just selling what is "not liked, already too small etc". 1. Does your sentence means that she is not entitled to 1000 allowance ? 2. Still, if she is, what about if rent from a property and selling is over 1k ? can she use "buying price" to "show loss?" Eg The suit for the prom was 500, selling for 50. rent is eg 1400 (per year). should she pay tax calculated from 1400 and not adding Vinted, or 1400 +50 or 1400+50-1000 or 1400+50-500. Or maybe 2x1000 GOV: "You can get up to £1,000 each tax year in tax-free allowances for property or trading income from 6 April 2017. If you have both types of income, you’ll get a £1,000 allowance for each." - one for property second for Vinted ? - BUT she is not self employed, she takes salary - more than 1k per year, does it means that she is already over 1k? There are small amounts, too small to pay for accountant, and at the same time there is a lot of information how government is for vinted/similar sellers. My wife is overthinking, she imagines police vans coming for her, taking her to the prison, shamed etc, and I am not exaggerating, she asked me what if she will be expelled out of UK. (not for drugs or killing, for selling on vinted old dresses) It took the whole plesure of selling on vinted.

1. I know (think) that if one sells one's own clothes and gain it is less than 1k one does not need to inform HMRC 2. I know that if one has capital gains eg from property, one need to inform HMRC and to pay taxes if such occured Question : what aobut altogheter ? CG from property, less than 1 K from selling own clothes ? Simple answer shoud be: add toghether, calculate CG. BUT, and it is the most important, as it looks "against" the reason of tax. If one has CG from property eg 8K, and CG from selling own clothes for eg 500, total is 8500, but buying own clothes was eg 2500, it can take CG down to 6k, and nothing tax. Can one deduct price of buying own clothes ? if yes, is bank account enough ? . Or just do not add and do not deduct this small selling ?

Thank You. So mentioned previously DTA was about Double Taxation ?! even if not, thanks for a link.

PL -Poland UK - United Kingdom DTA - not sure, according to Google it is something for companies, which I do not own. Tax Resident - United Kingdom in the first part, Poland in the second part I will have - pension from Poland, workpension lump sum (or sums) from Poland, would have salary (as employee) from England, and lump sum(s) from England. It is the first part. I understand that Polish pension, English salary and English lump sum(s) must be added to calculated tax in UK, "(1) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 18 of this Convention, pensions and other similar remuneration paid to an individual who is a resident of a Contracting State, shall be taxable only in that State." and I do not need to declare workpension lump sum(s) taking at Poland as: "(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this Article, a lump sum payment derived from a pension scheme established in a Contracting State and beneficially owned by a resident of the other Contracting State shall be taxable only in the first-mentioned State." Everything looks simple, but plural of lump sum. In Polish wersion there is wording something as :"lump sums which ARE taken". Second part - I am the resident at Poland, not working anymore even remotedly, but taking English pension instead. now everything but lump sum(s) from England must be declared and tax paid at Poland and lump sum(s) is taxed at United Kingdom without adding English pension. Hope more clearly now.

It is a question about understanding of the phrase " lump sum". Can lump sum be plural, as in Uncrystallised funds pension lump sums (UFPLS)? ( I am aware that this agreement can be changed in future) (it is not a question about a double taxation, I know that tax already paid can be deducted) On my retirment I plan to be a few years in UK, and later in PL.I understand that while in UK, I will pay tax from my PL gov pension, and I need to add it to my UK pension and UK Lump sum to calculate tax, but I DO NOT need to add PL Lump sum - I can just omit it for UK taxman. While at PL, I will still pay tax in UK on UK Lump sum, but I do not need to add UK pension to calculate tax, which will be taxed only by PL. I mean just lump sums - with no fixed term or amount. Am I right ?

Thank for clarification and usefull link. I am not sure how forum works, but as I do not need an answer immediately, I will not open a new question. Question is about capital gain - if this flat is sold, there is (in the same treaty) also the wording :gain "may be" taxed in a state where the property is, which I understand "will be" taxed in a country of residence, with the same possibility taken into account tax already paid.

Art 6 of PL-UK treaty : "(1) Income derived by a resident of a Contracting State from immovable property (including income from agriculture or forestry) situated in the other Contracting State may be taxed in that other State" I have a property at Poland, I am the UK resident. Property is rented. I will pay at Pl - as established per cent of income (with no possibility to change eg by expenses). I checked at forum and every time I saw similar question your answer is more less: if you are UK resident you must pay here as well. Question : should I PAY in UK (Poland demands to pay in Poland), or should I fill self assesment form and if my tax at PL is bigger than UK pay nothing extra or can I do nothing at UK ?