spm2004

Hi, can you please confirm my understanding of this? If I purchase an asset, then I use the purchase price (with fees etc) as the basis by which to calculate its contribution to the total pool value. If I receive a crypto asset for free (as a gift - NOT as payment for services or goods), then I use its market value at the time I receive it, as the basis by which to calculate its contribution to the total pool value. Is this correct, please? The reason I ask is that I sold some crypto assets that were gifted to me, for less than their market worth at the time I received them. There were no purchased assets within the pool, only the gifted ones. This has therefore worked out as a capital gains loss (if my understanding of the above is correct), even though I received them for free and am therefore better off (in terms of money in my bank) for having sold them. This seems a bit odd, hence my question. Thanks in advance for the sense-check!