StockOptions821485a

Hello. Thank you. I am sorry, could you help me regarding the (specifically) order for employer national insurance, please? As I understand, order generally may have no significance for national insurance. However, for this particular question the order does or may matter as I understand.

Hello. Thanks a lot. *** > Whilst in administration prior to the dissolution or striking off of a company does not preclude the use of alternative valuation procedures from the standard. I am sorry, it is not necessarily clear what that means. Could you advise me, please, what does that mean? *** In 'The Market Value of Shares, Securities and Strips Regulations 2015' there is section 'Securities or strips listed on recognised stock exchange outside the United Kingdom'. Could you advise me, please, if shares were traded on a foreign (non-UK) stock exchange, and I have only one 'close' price for that day, does it mean that I can use that one price (just as it was) for valuation purposes for CGT? Can the same price be used for Income Tax and National Insurance?

Hello. Thank you. My employer has been in administration. I may need to work on valuation myself. Could you advise me, please, may general rules (?) of valuation for shares be relevant to my question? In general, can the 'close' price for a day be used instead of the 'quarter-up' price for the day for valuation of shares that were traded on a foreign (non-UK) stock exchange? If so, can I use it for the RSUs distribution as per my first message in this thread?

Thank you. My question was about valuation. Could you help me with my question about valuation from my first message in this thread, please?

Could you help me, please? If I understand correctly, for valuation for a restricted share unit (RSUs) distribution a 'quarter-up' price can be used in some cases. I don't necessarily have the necessary information to calculate that 'quarter-up' price for a distribution of shares that were traded on a foreign (non-UK) stock exchange. Could you advise me, please, is it acceptable if I instead use the 'close' price on the day of the distribution for what counts as income (including for income tax) and for capital gains tax?