Andrew Holme

Thanks. I spoke to a specialist tax adviser who confirmed that the sole purpose of the CG64985 final period exemption is a concession to help people precisely in my situation. It is one of the very few scenarios where you do get relief on two properties for the same time period. https://www.gov.uk/tax-sell-home/absence-from-home Quote: "If you’ve nominated a home you cannot get relief for another property for the time your home is nominated, apart from for the periods that always qualify for relief." Note: "apart from for the periods that always qualify for relief." This is me selling property A: https://www.gov.uk/tax-relief-selling-home/y/yes/no/no/no Quote: "If you’ve nominated a home you can’t get relief for another property for the time your home is nominated, apart from for certain periods that always qualify for relief. You always get relief for the last 9 months you own a property." This is me selling property B several years later: https://www.gov.uk/tax-relief-selling-home/y/no/no/no-i-ve-not-lived-away/no Scenario: Property A sold after buying property B. Property B is nominated from the day of purchase. Am I correct?

That feels unfair. I am not keeping a holiday home. I am not buying to let or for gain. I am just moving house. I have made a decision to proceed with a purchase despite having problems with my sale. According to CG64985 the whole purpose of the final period exemption is to help people in my circumstances. Yet it seems HMRC giveth with one hand and taketh away with the other since there will be a liability on a future sale of the new home. So the exemption is not really helping at all? I find that hard to believe. I ask if you would please re-check the rules. My sense of fairness says there should be no liability now or way off in the future in my circumstances.

That is not what I am trying to ask. Let me put it another way: Property B will always be my main residence from the day of purchase; and my only residence after the sale of property A; however, there will have been a short period at the beginning of my ownership of B for which I received PRR on the sale of A. Can I claim 100% PRR on a future sale of property B?

There is sometimes a requirement to report house sales to HMRC: firstly within 60 days of completion, and secondly on the CGT summary pages of the annual return. Is it mandatory to do either or both when selling house#1 less than 9 months after buying house #2 if the sale qualifies for full private residence relief (PRR) and there is zero CGT liability? I am a UK resident and own no other property. House #1 has always been my only residence. House #2 will become my main residence from the day of purchase.

To be 100% clear: I can only have one main residence at a time; however, I can receive PRR on home A and PRR on home B covering the same time period of up to 9 months during which I own both. Is this correct? Scenario: Sell home A less than 9 months after buying home B. Make B my main residence from day of purchase. Thanks.

I was referring to the following sentence in HS283: "If, for up to a period of 24 months you do not occupy your new home when you acquire it because you’re unable to sell your old home, or [....], you can treat up to the first 24 months as if the house had been your only or main residence in that period." What does this sentence mean in my case? What concession is being given here? It cannot be the same as just opting for B.

I face the choice of which residence to live at for the period when I own two. I need to understand the CGT implications of this choice on the sale of A and on a possible future sale of B. I think your answer confirms my understanding of the consequences of moving to B straight away after purchasing it and leaving A empty for up to 9 months until it is sold. What if I can't sell A in 9 months? There is also a 24 month rule. Is it not actually safer for me to remain at A? Obviously there would be no CGT on the sale of A in this case. But do I not also get full PRR for the first 24 months of my ownership of B?

Home A has been my main and only residence where I have lived continuously since 2006. I am now buying home B, before selling A. I will therefore own two homes, but hopefully for no more than 6 months, during which time I believe I can nominate either A or B as my primary main residence. Provided I sell A within 9 months of buying B, am I correct in believing I qualify for full private residence relief and there is no CGT liability now, or on a future sale of B, no matter which property is nominated during the short overlap period, assuming B becomes my main and only residence after selling A?