Clive Smaldon

Not HMRC...this is dependent on whose name the property is being sold. If it is being sold within the estate then there is one CGT return and one calculation...and it needs to then form part of the estate tax return also. I note there are 4 beneficiaries. What often happens in this situation is the property is divested from the estate in to the beneficiaries individual names before sale, meaning that each beneficiary can then use their own CGT allowance (so £3000 exempt x 4, if the individuals are not using their allowance elsewhere for the year) and the rate of tax can then be lower for larger gains (dependent on beneficiaries other income), but this may not be the case here. You should speak to your solicitor as to whether it may or may not be beneficial to remove/transfer the property from the estate prior to sale or not, but will need to know your siblings other income estimate for the year to determine this.

Not HMRC...as the 2nd company has paid you under PAYE this is also employment, you cant show this separately as self employed/freelance income, so you will have two sets of employment pages, one for each. If there are allowable expenses these are also claimed against the second employment on the employment page. You would only show the health benefit on the SA form if you have a P11d, meaning it hasnt gone through payroll, if its gone through payroll its already been taxed and doesnt need to be shown separately.

Correct, no income tax for you on receipt...only thing I'd say is in such circumstances many people keep the "potential" IHT to one side in case the giver passes within the 7 years, so as not to deprive the estate/beneficiaries in that situation...however, ultimately, if the giver has factored that in and/or everyone is ok with the situation ultimately those funds are yours to do with as you wish.

Not HMRC...because a gift of £100k is treated as a potentially exempt transfer for Inheritance Tax, and it only becomes exempt to IHT after 7 years. Should the person giving you the money not survive 7 years the money will be added back to their estate to calculate any IHT payable. If the person survived less than 2 years the estate is liable on the full amount of the gift, between 2 years and less than 7 then a tapered amount is added back.

Not HMRC...this is potentially horribly tax inefficient, your wife needs to talk to a local IFA re pension/investment advice...

Not HMRC...You have incorrectly deducted mortgage interest, your assessable income from property is £11000 not £9500, with any relief for the morgtage interest given as a basic rate credit up to the amount of the assessable tax on property income in isolation. As you dont have a property income liability there is nothing to set the tax credit against, therefore, the HMRC figure is £300 (£1500 x 20%) higher than your figure. To confirm, it is not piossible to treat the mortgage interest as a deduction, it must be given as a tax credit when the tax on property profit in isolation is considered.

...thought Id give you figure/calculation...(£117449 above £100000 ) = 17449 / 2 (tapered at allowance restirction of £1 for £2 above limit) is £8724.50 lost @ 40% = £3489.50 tax due. Difference to your figure of £3493.50 is £3.70 which is a PAYE rounding figure.

Best way I can explain it is...I think "override" is the confusing bit here. The DTA makes the decision as to treaty residence where something is assessable when it is "only" assessable in one state, when the DTA says it may be taxed in both then treaty residence hasnt overridden anything, it doesnt turn someone in to a non resident for UK tax purposes under SRT...but will leave it for HMRC to clarify re that and penalties etc...

Not HMRC, tax acct. Its because your code is giving you full personal allowances, when, as you are over £100k your allowance is partially lost for the year, i.e. tapered above £100k until its lost altogether, on £117449 you keep some allowance, but not all of it.

NP...the main issue is, most people dont understand there are two types of tax residence, statutory residence and treaty residence and they are independant of each other when it comes to if/what/where. Yes, it is a very common misunderstanding, and HMRC have been very good over the last few years at looking at returns where FTC has been claimed in the UK on sources "only" assessable in the treaty resident country, because, if actually UK treaty resident FTC is not allowable.