coolhandmarc

If a consent order at the time of our divorce is reached which changes our matrimonial home in my name, i.e. only myself on the deeds to be held by the Applicant Wife and the Respondent Husband upon a trust of land for themselves as beneficial tenants in common in equal shares upon the following terms: a) the Respondent Husband shall be entitled to occupy the property until the sale/determining event as defined below; b) the property shall not be sold without the prior written consent of both parties or further order until the first to happen of the following events (“the determining event”); Would this be a CGT event with tax due?

How would a payment to my ex-wife be treated for CGT if for her 50% share of equity if I am buying her out now.