Edward

I'm in the same boat, relief at source pension, contribution taken out of March payslip, direct debit was processed mid-April into the pension pot, so different tax years. The "Deemed date of contributions" paragraph specific to relief at source is worded so ambiguously that I'm not sure I understand, it sounds like it's saying use the direct debit date (so April) but I called HMRC who checked with a technician and they were unsure but leaned more towards Payslip, but wouldn't give me that in writing nor could they tell me what the Deemed date of contributions would mean in this circumstance. Has anyone been able to get a definitive answer? it seems like a common scenario for relief at source workplace pensions.

The above is hard to digest, can it be put into layman's terms please? I have a relief at source pension thats taken from my payslip, my P60 shows 10 pension payments, but my pension provider are showing 11, as it looks like the one on my March payslip was received by them in April Which one should I use, my P60 YTD pension contributions, or my pension providers tax year record? Thank you!

Thank you for the clarification, does ISA interest affect ANI at all? The other scenario (other than high income child benefit charge) is how the Personal Allowance gets tapered off once your ANI goes over the threshold. Am I correct in thinking that ISA interest is not counted towards this either? Thanks in advance, just want to make sure I can act like my ISA interest does not exist as far as self-assessment and tax reporting goes!

General question, I know all interest in an ISA is tax free and doesn't need to be declared in the "Untaxed Interest" section on the self-assessment form. But does the interest count towards adjusted net income, for things like the high income child benefit charge? Just making sure there isn't an edge case I'n not aware of when an ISA or its interest would need to be included on a self-assessment. Thanks in advance,

I've seen mixed messages on these forums so would like clarification, I have a workplace pension that is relief at source, so I pay in x and the pension provider claim the additional 20%. HMRC phone line told me to put this in box 1, so "Payments to registered pension schemes where basic rate tax relief will be claimed by your pension provider (called ‘relief at source’). Enter the payments and basic rate tax." But this thread makes it sound like it goes to box 3, which I was told on the phone, does not take the existing 20% into account so would result in getting too much back. Can you please confirm if a workplace relief at source pension should be Box 1 or Box 3 Thank you!

Hello, I stumbled upon this when searching a similar question. I have some capital losses to calculate from the sale of US listed stock, and need a USD to GBP exchange rate. So I've been using the monthly averages published by the HMRC So I get the month acquired, and the month sold rates from this. e.g. https://www.trade-tariff.service.gov.uk/exchange_rates/view/2024-3?type=monthly Am I okay to use these rate for capital gains calculations, so long as I use them consistently? Thanks!

So given my example above, the correct number would be £275? Thanks!

I'm finding mixed messages both on hmrc.gov.uk and also third party guidance websites, on what should be entered for question 1 of the Paying into Registered Pension Schemes section on the self-assessment form. The question is: "Payments to registered pension schemes where basic rate tax relief will be claimed by your pension provider (called ‘relief at source’). Enter the payments and basic rate tax" I have a relief at source pension, and let's say my pension provider sends me an annual report which shows: You paid in: £220.00 Your Employer paid in: £550.00 Your tax relief was: £55.00 Am I correct in thinking I should enter the sum of what I paid in + the basic rate tax relief they already claimed, so for the numbers above I would enter £275.00 here? the wording is very confusing, I asked my co-worker and they are only entering the amount they paid in (so (£220 in this case). Which is correct please. Thanks in advance,

Thanks, if I include it in the Tips and other payment section, won't I end up having to pay any extra tax due on it twice? as it'll be both added into this years tax return, plus included in next years P60? Also, why do I need to fill out the claim credit for the Tax in the foreign section? from what I'm told from other employees who also do self-assessments, they just put the P60 numbers in and that's it, as I work for a UK company and whilst the stock are for a US listed company, we have completed a W-8BEN which I think means we don't need to fill this section in. Can you confirm please? Thanks for the help