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Hi there my elderly mother wishes to gift us the family home (or sell it and give us the cash proceeds). In return we will need to pay for her rent in a small 1 bed apartment. I understand that if she gifts us the family home (or the cash proceeds from the sale of it), and we "buy" her an apartment to live in, this will be caught under the pre owned asset charge regime. But if we pay for her monthly rent instead, will this also be subject to the pre owned asset charge/gift with reservation of benefit regime? My guess is (if we were to pay her rent), that gifting us the home will be under the pre owned asset rules, or gifting us the cash proceeds of the sale would be under the gift with reservation of benefit rules (as she still benefits from the cash), but there doesn't seem anything conclusive on the HMRC website with regards to this situation (where you pay for someones rent.) Furthermore, if it were caught by the POAT regime would the annual amount charged be to POAT be how much I could rent out the family apartment for post tax, or if the sales proceeds are given to me, how much interest I receive on the proceeds after tax? Or if it were caught by the GROB regime would the value of the benefit be the market value of the new apartment she rents? thanks

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Hi there My wife, who is self employed but earning minimal (sub £5k) amounts each year has been paying voluntary class 2 national insurance credits for the past 15 years or so, in order to build up entitlement to the state pension. We have just realised that as she claims child benefit for our three children, she is automatically getting class 3 credits also (until our eldest is 12) which means she didn't actually need to pay the voluntary class two contributions at all, for state pension purposes. Is it possibly to apply for a refund of the voluntary class 2 contributions for the last 15 years or so on this basis? thanks AD

Understood. Thank you.

HI Admin I am in the same situation where I would like to claim EIS loss relief for shares disposed of this tax year (2023/24) against last year's income (22/23) and have yet to submit my 22/23 tax return. Can i clarify something? You mention that in year losses need to be used against in year gains first, but seeing as we are permitted to clam the loss relief against last years income, it would mean by definition, that we don't actually need to use it against in year capital gains first? Would it be possible to definitely confirm then that we still can't submit the loss relief on our 2022/23 returns? thanks 

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