igys

I am seeking clarification regarding taxation of interest accrued before transfer of a security. I bought UK government bonds (guilts) on a secondary market. Apart from the bonds' price, I was charged for "Purchase Accrued Interest" of 37.09 by the broker to account for the interest already accrued before the previous coupon payment. I have since received interest of 100. I see confusing guidance regarding on how to tax the interest: 1. SAIM2450 suggests to tax 100 as income and consider the purchase price + accrued interest payment as the cost basis 2. SAIM4010 and the examples in 4140, 4160 suggest the tax 100 - 37.09 = 62.91 as income and consider only the base price as the cost basis. Could you clarify which interpretation is correct?

I have two units of stock of the same company in the S104 pool. Both of them were acquired for £100 but one of them was charged foreign tax of £20 on acquisition. I sold one of the units for £200, generating £100 of capital gains (I have other capital gains and income that brings me above the 20% capital gains threshold). Capital gains tax to pay is £20. For the purposes of calculating the foreign tax credit relief, should I: a) apportion the foreign tax based on the total number of shares that were subject to foreign tax, leading to £10 FTCR and £10 remaining foreign tax to claim once I sell the other unit, or b) consider the full foreign tax paid already, leading to £20 FTCR already ?