I left my employer on 30 June 2021. I was part way through the bonus year and had accumulated 25% (3 months). The bonus year ended 31 March 2022.
In July 2022, I received a letter and payslip from my old employer saying I'd been awarded a bonus. The payslip shows I paid tax and NI. I haven't received a P60 but I know my companies tax ref.
When completing my self assessment for 22/23, I intend to delare the payment/tax under the "employer section" (although I wasn't technically employed when the bonus payment was made) and enter a note to reflect what has happened.
Do you agree this is the best approach?
So, if no tax is paid on income, but the dividends are £3005, which is £1005 over the £2000 dividend allowance, then what is the dividend tax rate applied? The link you provided covers "basic rate", "higher" and "additional". It doesn't cover anything less than "basic rate".
Thank you for your reply. A few clarifications, please....
If total income is less than £17,570 and dividends income is £3005, then the £1005 in excess of the £2000 dividend allowance would be taxed at 0%. Is this correct? I suppose it is covered as part of the SRA.
Are fund platforms such as Fidelity, classed as financial institutions and therefore report untaxed interest and dividend info to HMRC?
This is my understanding.
I've based it on...
If person A is retired with the state pension as their income. This is less than the personal allowance of £12570. This means they qualify for £5000 starting rate allowance. Untaxed interest from banks, building society (financial institutions), unit trusts held within a general investment account (not an ISA) would be part of the £5000 SRA and therefore if the SRA is not exceeded then there is no tax to pay on their untaxed interest.
Person A inherited some unit trusts held in a general investment account.
If dividends from unit trusts held within the general investment account (not an ISA) exceed the £1000 dividend allowance, then because person A is in the 0% income tax band, they would pay no dividend related tax on anything in excess of £1000.
If there were capital gains from selling the unit trusts held within the GIA (not an ISA) exceed the £6000 cgt allowance, then because person A is in the 0% income tax band, they would pay no cgt related tax on anything in excess of £6000
The GIA is with an investment company, for example, Fidelity. Fidelity being a financial institution will inform HMRC of untaxed interest generated within the GIA at the end of each tax year. HMRC will use the information to modify the persons tax code, if required.
Are all my statements correct? If not, please tell me why not?
Personally, I think the best course of action would be to move the funds from the GIA into an ISA. My clarifications would then become irrelevant.