OJC22

In another post HMRC said this: "The property will have to be taxed on the same proportion that they own the property". This would suggest that the actual legal title of the property would need to split through land register? No?

We need to complete form 17 and provide a declaration? In the form of a deed of assignment? Is that correct?

My husband and I bought a property when we were first married and owned it 50/50. Some years ago we started to rent it out and for tax purposes we changed land ownership through a solicitor to 99/1 as I was part time and my husband was a higher tax rate payer. We would like to adjust the ownership to 92/8 now as I have increased my hours and my husbands job has stabilised. I'd like to know if I can do this for free myself or whether I need to pay a solicitor to do it as it's not clear what I need to do from reading the forums. Do I need to change the land registry or can I just fill out a form that tells HMRC? Help would be most appreicated.