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Posted Fri, 17 May 2024 17:02:39 GMT by Gabriel CS
Hi there, The situation is about a company in the UK that receives income from an overseas Trust that is considered opaque (Garland). Therefore, incomes are taxed on a remittance basis, when received in the UK. The question is what about the withholding tax on the income received in year n that has been applied within n+1 instead but related to that income received in the year n. Should the withholding tax be taken in consideration in year n or year n+1? Thanks
Posted Wed, 29 May 2024 07:45:50 GMT by HMRC Admin 20 Response
Hi Gabriel CS,
Unfortunately we cannot answer hypothetical questions nor provide accountancy advice.
You may need to seek the assistance of a professional tax advisor/accountant. 
Thank you.

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