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Posted 6 months ago by Bala Vedhamoorthi
My US employer offers an Employee Stock Purchase Plan(ESPP) which i subscribed to. ESPP Purchase Details: Purchase FMV Price = $90 Purchase Price = $76 Purchased Shares = 50 The employer offered the shares at a discount (15%) so the discounted price was calculated as follows and added to the regular payslip as benefit-in-kind. The amount reported as income in the payslip is the total discount, Purchase FMV - (minus) Purchase Price x (multiplied by) number of shares. technically I been taxed up to the purchase FMV. = ($90 - $76) x 50 ESPP Sale Details: auto sale on the same date of vesting. Sale Price $90 Shares Sold = 50 My Question: Should I use "Purchase FMV Price" or "Purchase Price" for CGT calculations?
Posted 6 months ago by HMRC Admin 19 Response
Hi,
It is the discounted purchase price you paid for the shares that you will use when working this out.
Thank you.
Posted 5 months ago by Bala Vedhamoorthi
@HMRC Admin 19 Response Thanks for your reply. What is not clear here is that the discount we received has already been treated as income and taxed as a benefit-in-kind, so technically we should treat the purchase FMV as the price I paid for right.. According to Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992, Section 38(1)(a)(b)(c), benefit-in-kind was charged because of the acquisition of this ESPP shares so would you consider the tax -paid here for at least the cost-basis. thanks in advance
Posted 5 months ago by HMRC Admin 19 Response
Hi,
You can see guidance here:
Securities sold or transferred
Thank you.

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