Bala Vedhamoorthi

@HMRC Admin 19 Response Thanks for your reply. What is not clear here is that the discount we received has already been treated as income and taxed as a benefit-in-kind, so technically we should treat the purchase FMV as the price I paid for right.. According to Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992, Section 38(1)(a)(b)(c), benefit-in-kind was charged because of the acquisition of this ESPP shares so would you consider the tax -paid here for at least the cost-basis. thanks in advance

My US employer offers an Employee Stock Purchase Plan(ESPP) which i subscribed to. ESPP Purchase Details: Purchase FMV Price = $90 Purchase Price = $76 Purchased Shares = 50 The employer offered the shares at a discount (15%) so the discounted price was calculated as follows and added to the regular payslip as benefit-in-kind. The amount reported as income in the payslip is the total discount, Purchase FMV - (minus) Purchase Price x (multiplied by) number of shares. technically I been taxed up to the purchase FMV. = ($90 - $76) x 50 ESPP Sale Details: auto sale on the same date of vesting. Sale Price $90 Shares Sold = 50 My Question: Should I use "Purchase FMV Price" or "Purchase Price" for CGT calculations?

I recall the price paid is the discounted price offered by the employer so the employer will add the difference between the Purchase FMV - Purchase Price as benefit-in-kind on payslip, Purchase FMV or Acquisition FMV may be the right price with selling price to establish the CGT