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Posted Tue, 09 Jan 2024 13:16:04 GMT by
Hi If you buy the remaining 50% of a property from your partner in a divorce settlement, then what is the acquisition price for CGT purposes, if you sell that property later on. Is it that price at which you bought from your ex partner or is it 50% the original price please?
Posted Mon, 15 Jan 2024 17:17:36 GMT by HMRC Admin 19 Response
Hi,

It is made of your share when originally purchased and then the 50% at the time purchased from your former spouse.

Thank you.
Posted Tue, 13 Feb 2024 11:46:25 GMT by
I thought that transfers as part of a divorce settlement are on a no gain/no loss basis. ie the share acquired as part of the divorce settlement is treated as though you bought it at the original price at the time of the original purchase? Maybe my understanding of no gain/no loss is incorrect.

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