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  • new activity on top of my first one as sole trader

    Hi, I'm registered as self-employed with HMRC in the UK (I'm a sole trader). When I registred originally, I described my business as 'media and journalism'. That was my description to HMRC. I'm a freelance journalist... But I also work in the event industry (as a hostess in meetings, conferences). I'm also freelancing but my agency treats me as an employee, using the PAYE system... But now I'm registering with a another agency and they want me to be self-employed with them. Can I use the same business and UTR number than the one created for writing articles (the 'media and journalism' one) or do I need to create a new business described as 'events' for example? If I can still use the same company I created and simply add the new activity to it maybe by modifying the business description from 'media and journalism' to 'media and events', that would be wonderful (as much more simple)... I hope my question is more or less clear... Thank you
  • RE: sale of shares

    Hi Many thanks. But, sorry, just to be clear. 1) Even if it's a disposal of foreign assets, the annual exempt allowance at the time should cover it, right? And therefore no tax will be due, is thar correct ? 2) Could I have a penalty (and of how much) for not reporting it (even, again, if no tax should be due)? To be honest - and sorry for saying that - but I asked the same question at the time to this forum and I'm pretty sure I was answered that I didn't need to report it since the income since since it below the allowance... and I made a little research on this forum again and this answer is still given, even for fidposal of foreign assets...I mean, that's fine but it's just that sometimes I think that things are not always very clear and it can be a little bit stressing. Thank you for your help again,
  • could I be in trouble?

    Okay, I'm afraid I've made a mistake. A few years ago, when I arrived in the UK, I accepted to work 1 to 5 days per month as a receptionist at a venue for a time. But the problem was that the job wasn't declared or, at least, I'm not completely sure... I mean, to pay me, they were sending me £60 per day of work straight to my account...but I didn't sign any contract or nothing of the sort (I didn't get any receipt either)...to be honest, I thought it wasn't a lot of money, that the job was nice..and I was also not completely sure of how things worked and thought that I'd bother them if I asked them for a contract (it was a flexible job, the company was offering work whenever they had availabilities and I could say 'yes' or 'no', there was no committment on either side...What I did is that, as I was also self-employed, registered here in the UK (but for different things, I'm a freelancer in communications), I did add the money they were giving me to the business turn-over I was declaring to HMRC (but I admit that I didn't invoice them and it's true again the 'task' that was required of me didn't match the business description I first gave HMRC when I registered)... I thought that as long as I would declare the money I would be fine...but maybe not ? I talked about that with a friend and have a doubt now... Could I be in trouble ? Should I do something about it (and what?)? In any case, I would not have owed HMRC any money as I was below the personal allowance (even with this money as a receptionis). Sorry, I hope, you can help
  • financial gift

    Hi, Hi, I 'm a French national living in the UK and I'm resident there for tax purposes. What if my parents, based in France, want to make me a 25,000 pounds donation/ gift (they would put it on my French account). Should I report it to HMRC ? Should I pay taxes on this and by how much ? Many thanks,
  • sale of shares

    Hi, Sorry to bother you but I will need a 'yes' or 'no' answer, if possible, to that question. I 'm a French national living in the UK and I'm resident there for tax purposes. In the 2020-2021 tax year, I had to sell the shares that I had at my bank in France in order to gain some liquidity as Covid was happening. And the question is : was I supposed to declare this money to the UK? I received, in total for the tax year, the equivalent of 9,432 pounds, which was below the annual exempt amount at the time (£12300) for the capital gains tax (https://www.gov.uk/guidance/capital-gains-tax-rates-and-allowances).... so I shoudn't have been taxable, if I'm not wrong..... But the questions remains : should I have had reported this money, anyway ? I have a doubt since I read the gvt page on this (https://www.gov.uk/capital-gains-tax/work-out-need-to-pay) and here's the part tgets me confused : "If your total gains are less than the tax-free allowance You do not have to pay tax if your total taxable gains are under your Capital Gains Tax allowance. You still need to report your gains in your tax return if both of the following apply: - the total amount you sold the assets for was more than 4 times your allowance - you’re registered for Self Assessment " The way I understand this is that they give 2 conditions for having to report your gains : - one of them is I having registred for the self-assessment, which I have - and the other one is having had proceeds that are equivalent to 4 times the allowance...so if I'm not mistaken : 4 x 12,300 = 49,200...and as I said I received, from the sale of my shares, a little more than 9,000 pounds for the tax year in question so that I would be way below the thresold then so I shouldn't have had to report it...did I understand this correctly ? I'm asking because I'm afraid of having made a mistake...if I didn't report it whereas I should have, could I have a penalty for this (eveni if no tax was due) ? Many thanks,