L T

Dear HMRC official, Good afternoon, can I please ask if there is any CGT implications in the following senario, One has two individually owned company A and B. He is the 100% shareholders of both companies which has been trading for years and are both in profits. If he transfers his 100% share of company A directly to company B and there is no issuing of new shares in B. Will he be subject to CGT based on market value rule? Thank you for your time and clarification, Kind regards LT

Thank you very much for your kind clarification. Best regards

Dear Sir/Madam, Good afternoon. can you please clarify if the cold take away bubble tea as you see from some shopping mall or high street store all over the UK is zero-rated or standard rated? Thank you. Kind regards LT

Dear Sir/Madam, can I please ask if claim of remittance basis will lose Personal Savings Allowance? I have overseas income of around GBP 60K and in the UK I only have around GBP 300.00 bank interest . if I claim remittance basis, will I lose my personal savings allowance of 1,000 and have to pay tax? thank you. Kind regards LT

Thank you for your kind clarification. Regards LT

Dear Sir/Madam, Good afternoon, Can you please kindly clarify if and how an individual (UK tax resident) withhold tax from interest payment to an overseas individual (Non UK tax resident)? For UK companies, there is CT61 form. Is there any form for individual traders? Furthermore, does an UK individual have to withhold tax for the interest payment to an overseas resident if it's not for a trade, say it's for purchasing a residential property considering the rocketing official interest rate now? Thank you for your kind clarification. Regards LT