HMRC Admin 21 Response

Hi ssku,
In the first scenario the goods do not xcome in to the UK so are OutsideThe Scope Of UK VAT.
If the Spanish company are charging you Spanish VAT then they are deeming the supply to be in Spain and so are correct in charging Spanish VAT.
Your company will own the goods in Spain and will therefore be making a supply in the EU between Spain and Germany.
It is likely you will need to register for VAT is Spain to allow you to account for the VAT on your supply.As you are registered for VAT in Spain you would then be able to recover the VAT charged to you.
For the second scenario both of these options seem fine as in the first scenario your UK customer will be the importer of record and in the second option you will be the importer of record and thus making a UK taxable supply.
If you incur import duties in the UK then you can add the customs duties to your price before calculating the VAT.
Thank you.

Hi ipmuimui,
If neither party is not charging rent then there is no tax implication at this time. for Inheritance tax purposes, you would need to call 0300 123 1072 and check with the IHT deaprtment.
Thank you.

Hi Bunty,
If your foreign income is derived solely from foreign dividends and the combined sum of UK and foreign dividends is below the threshold for the tax year and no other self assessment criteria apply, then you do not need to complete a tax return.  By 'you have no other income to report' it is meant to mean foreign income.
Thank you.

Hi Glaw5,
If you do not have evidence to support, you cannot claim expenses as evidence may be asked for at a later date.
Thank you.

Hi Peter Fletcher,
You need to report it so that HMRC are aware that a loss is in fact available that you can then use at a later date.
Thank you.