Clive Smaldon

Understood...all I can say is what seems right from a personal perspective versus what the law says can be two very different things...tax law often doesnt consider all circumstances that are out of the ordinary...until tested in court (thats why appeals processes exist and ultimately it can be taken to court to test the legislation that applies, tax cases are heard in court daily/weekly/monthly)...and then the law can be interpreted differently/changed if ruled in favour of the taxpayer or confirmed if HMRC prevail...the above is my interpretation of the position if someone asked me it's what I'd say, the events need to be considered somehow as ownership physically changed on the deeds, and as no consideration then the law would treat this as gifts, with all the legislation that relates to that...Id be more than ok to be wrong.

Not HMRC...where are you statutorily tax resident? UK? Australia? Both? If both countries then you need to check article 4 of UK/Australia DTA to determine which country takes precedence for sources in each country (pension (article 17) is, for example, only taxable in one country, which means, if Treaty resident in Australia then it shouldnt be being taxed in the UK, if Treaty resident in the UK then your UK return should include any Austrailan sources that are taxable in both countries with FTC...check the DTA for sources that "may" be taxed which means "can and will" be taxable in both, but not all income is tabale in both, as shown by pension)...If not statutorily resident in Australia then what you describe is OK...and you can claim allowances in the UK regardless as British citizen/commonwealth/under DTA, youd need to check re Australia. https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/rdr3-statutory-residence-test-srt https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/australia-tax-treaties/2003-australia-uk-double-taxation-convention-in-force#article-4---residence

Not HMRC...Student loan repayment is based on cumulative income from all sources. Not sure why you think the part time employment shouldnt be included in the calculation?....otherwise, by using that logic someone with 4 part time jobs could earn £10k from each, total income for the year £40k and pay nothing back whereas someone with one full time job on £4Ok would repay...the "threshold" only applies when operated against PAYE where income goes above it for PAYE student repayment rules, its not the definitive result, which needs to take account of all taxable income for the year.

Not HMRC...you are treated as tax resident from the date of arrival and are fully tax resident for the following year, having arrived "permanently" in July 24, unless anything changes and you leave again in the following year. You are likely "split year" for 2024/25 (hence not technically fully tax resident, but treated as such from arrival) so liable in the UK on worldwide income/assets from arrival.

Not HMRC...you do not need to submit a P.85 as you are under SA. When you complete the 2024/25 return you will need to complete residence pages to claim split year (if approrpriate). See "how to tell HMRC" https://www.gov.uk/tax-right-retire-abroad-return-to-uk. n.b. You should then also complete a SA return for 2025/26 to claim full non residence for UK tax purposes.

Not HMRC...the interest allowance cannot be carried forward from year to year when unused, when the interest becomes receivable/available/received it is taxed in that year, with any allowance appropriate to that year once only, so, any allowance is once not x 8. Disposals of shares are liable to CGT in all circumstances (unless in an ISA), and are then subject to any appropriate claim/election so not sure why you think tax free? If the shares are liable to income tax (often the case on becoming available to the employee) they will be payrolled, if not there is no base cost on sale.

Not HMRC...the period after you arrive "permanently" is not relevant re sufficient ties, in arriving "permanently" and claiming split year from that date you are saying "until this date I was not tax resident, but now, hey, im here, im now treated as UK tax resident from this date (even though you dont "technically" become fully UK tax resident until the following year) and am liable to UK tax on my worldwide income and gains from this date"...ties are only considered when none of the autormatic residence or non residence tests are met, in claiming split year you are effectively saying I am tax resident from the date of arrival Therefore, the visits allowed prior to maintain non residence prior to this date are determined by the number of ties at that time...hence the year is "split"

Not HMRC...if you did this once you are not trading and its liable to CGT...its not a repetative transaction, and is liable to CGT not IT. If you do this more than once and then regularly there is a case for trading rather than capital gains... https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/business-income-manual/bim20205 either way there will be tax due, just depends under which tax rules.

Not HMRC...as now married you can gift back and forwards in any %'s you wish, spousal (and civil partners) transfers are exempt for CGT purposes...so if it is beneficial to do so you can alter the % of ownership BEFORE sale again (depends on other income as to CGT rates etc)...though anything/everything (rules, rates, exemptions etc) could change in forthcoming budget

Not HMRC...its the date the transfer form was signed and dated.