BellaBoo

Just to clarify, the £2,500 limit is on expenses claimed....not the amount of tax due to be refunded. As you're claiming £3,700 in expenses and that is in excess of £2,500 then a return is required.

Hi, not HMRC Admin but it is an easy answer. You've given up salary in exchange for the benefits in kind. So instead of being taxable on the salary, you're now taxable on the benefits in kind. The amount on the p11d isn't the amount you're liable to pay though. Its the amount you're liable to pay tax on. So if p11d is £3000, you'd owe £600 as a basic rate payer and £1200 as higher rate.

Hi, not HMRC Admin but to answer your other question, you'd have to claim the whole £85,000 in the 21/22 return. If you have unused allowance (the 60k) from the previous 3 years this will prevent you getting a tax charge in the 21/22 year for the excess 25k you contributed. You will only receive higher rate relief to the extent you paid higher rate. So if your earnings were 70k, you would only get higher rate relief on 20k of the 85k contribution. Hope that clarifies things for you.

Hi, not a HMRC Admin but your accountant is woefully incorrect. You can only self assess for 4 years from the end of the tax year. So I'm not sure why your accountant thinks they can file self assessments for the out of date years. https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1970/9/section/34A But there is also a 4 year time limit on making claims (such as CGT losses). https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1970/9/section/43

Hi, not a HMRC Admin but there is a very clear answer to this scenario. Unfortunately, it isn't a favourable answer. https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/business-income-manual/bim37940

That is what I'm explaining. The contributions are given relief in the year the contribution is made. Let me use numbers to try help demonstrate. Say you earn 100k this year and contribute 60k to your SIPP (we will ignore employers contributions for now to keep it simple, but they also count towards the annual allowance). The provider would add 15k in tax relief bringing the total you contributed to 75k. Normally that would be above your annual allowance and result in a tax charge. But if you had sufficient unused allowance from the previous years, no tax charge would be created. As you added 75k to the pension, your basic rate band would be increased by this amount to 112,700. Now you'd pay 0% on 12570 covered by the personal allowance. That leaves 87430 liable to tax. As this is less than the increased basic rate band, all of it would be due tax at 20% bringing the tax to 17486. Had you not made that contribution you would've paid 20% on 37700 and 40% on 49730, bringing the tax to 27432. And if you'd earned more than 100k then the saving would be more as then you'd be able to use more of the increased basic rate band. If I'm not helping, please say and I'll stop posting. I don't want to confuse matters more for you.

Hi, I am not a HMRC Admin but think (or hope) I can help explain it. It is a carry forward of unused pension allowance to the current year. Not a carry back of pension contributions to a previous year. It is to enable you to make a greater contribution in the current year if you've used the current years allowance. Normally if you exceed your annual allowance you'd be liable to a tax charge. But if you have enough annual allowance from the previous years then this would enable you to pay in more (as long as you have sufficient relevant earnings in the year the contribution is made, to cover the increased contribution) without getting a tax charge.

Hi, I'm not HMRC Admin but a few points to note. If you transfer your interest to your minor children then it will likely be a settlement, the net effect of which is that it remains taxable on you. If your son truly has the beneficial interest then it is entirely up to him how the money is spent and there are few children who would choose to use it on school fees. By giving your son a beneficial interest, he will have lost benefits he could have had as a first time buyer when he leaves the nest. If there is a mortgage on the property that will throw an additional spanner into the works too. I think the best advice I can give you is to engage a professional to help keep you right.

Hi, I'm not HMRC Admin but your question is an easy one. Employees realistically can only claim for the extra unit cost of utilities (gas, water & electric) used in performing the duties of employment (and business telephone calls if they're not part of a free package or broadband if your Internet is metered). This is because in order to claim as an employee, the expense must be wholly, exclusively and necessarily incurred performing the duties of employment and you must be obliged to incur the expense by reason of holding the employment. Mortgage interest/rent and council tax cannot be claimed as they weren't incurred in performing the duties of employment. If the broadband is a fixed cost then it as before it wasn't incurred in performing the duties. https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/employment-income-manual/eim32820 https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/employment-income-manual/eim32815

Hi Puffer, I can't say why it exists sadly and I don't think HMRC can either since they don't write the legislation. At a guess, they didn't want HMRC to get bogged down in disputes between spouses and the admin costs (of enacting the transfer, then cancelling, then recovering the underpaid tax) would likely be too erroneous.